please answer the following and give a good explanation

Answer:

  upper right selection

Step-by-step explanation:

Matrix addition, subtraction, and multiplication or division by a constant are done on a term-by-term basis.

  [tex]\left[\begin{array}{cc}4&-7\\-11&5\end{array}\right] +\left[\begin{array}{cc}1&6\\-1&3\end{array}\right] =\left[\begin{array}{cc}4+1&-7+6\\-11-1&5+3\end{array}\right] \\\\=\boxed{\left[\begin{array}{cc}5&-1\\-12&8\end{array}\right] }[/tex]

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

Any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side.

Answer:

18

Step-by-step explanation:

The radius is half of the diameter, so we would multiply 9 x 2 and get 18.

Hope this helps!

Step-by-step explanation:

156 6.76 + 2.91 equal to 9.67

Answer:

p = 33/100 = 33%

Step-by-step explanation:

p (probability) = 1.00 - [variables]

p = 1.00 - (0.12 + 0.07 + 0.05 + 0.28 + 0.15)

p = 1.00 - 0.67

p = 33/100

Area of triangle = 1/2 x base x height

128 = 1/2 x base x 12

Multiply both sides by 2:

256 = base x 12

Divide both sides by 12

Base = 21 1/3 cm

Answer:

Type 2:  exponential growth

d =  121

e =  133

Answer:

Exponential growth

d: 121

e: 133.1

Step-by-step explanation:

edge 23

Answer:

A. P(3/4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

w=4yd

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] - 10 + 2 \frac{1}{3} \div \frac{3}{4} = [/tex]

[tex] - 10 + \frac{7}{3} \div \frac{3}{4} = [/tex]

[tex] - 10 + \frac{7}{3} \times \frac{4}{3} = [/tex]

[tex] - 10 + \frac{7 \times 4}{3 \times 3} = [/tex]

[tex] - 10 + \frac{28}{9} = [/tex]

[tex] \frac{ - 10}{ 1} + \frac{28}{9} = [/tex]

[tex] \frac{ - 90}{9} + \frac{28}{9} = [/tex]

[tex] \frac{ - 90 + 28}{9} = [/tex]

[tex] \frac{ - 90 - ( - 28)}{9} = [/tex]

[tex] \frac{ - (90 - 28)}{9} = [/tex]

[tex] \frac{ - 6 2}{9} = [/tex]

[tex] - 6 \frac{8}{9} [/tex]

Answer: -62/9

Step-by-step explanation:

The marks on the number line are used to represent the points on the number line

The point on the given diagram is on the point x = -1

The value of x is given as:

x = -1

The above equation means that, the value of x is on the -1 point of x

This in other words means that, the position of x is 1 point to the left of 0

From the diagram, the point is already on the point x = -1

Read more about number lines at:

https://brainly.com/question/10851163

Answer:

-1 and 1 if you are using absolute value

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

How long does a 750 word essay tak

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify it. -16d-16=-20.

Add 16 to both sides. -16d=-4

Divide 16 by both sides.

d=1/4

Answer:

$28.40

Step-by-step explanation:

First let's find how much they earned from washing the cars. They charged $6 for each car and washed 22 so 6x22=$132 from washing cars. After that they earned 10 more dollars so we have to add that. 132+10=$142 earned in total. Then we have to divide this total income between all of the girls. 142/5=$28.40 for each girl.

Answer:

220°

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\angle PQM [/tex] is inscribed in the [tex]\widehat{PQM}[/tex] and [tex]\widehat{PNM}[/tex] is intercepted by it.

Therefore, by inscribed angle theorem:

[tex]m\angle PQM =\frac{1}{2}\times m\widehat{(PNM)}[/tex]

[tex]\implies 110\degree =\frac{1}{2}\times m\widehat{(PNM)}[/tex]

[tex]\implies 110\degree \times 2= m\widehat{(PNM)}[/tex]

[tex]\implies m\widehat{(PNM)}= 220\degree [/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\Rrightarrow m<PQM=1/2m\overset{\cap}{PNM}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\Rrightarrow m\overset{\cap}{PNM}=2m<PQM=2(110)=220°[/tex]

The probability of randomly selected students who will be absent no more than one day is 0.92. Option D is correct.

The probability is defined as the number of favorable occurrences of an event.

Given the probability distribution of the number of absence for one week,

x:            0         1         2         3       4      5

P(X):    0.78    0.14    0.03    0.01    0    0.04

We know that the probability of any event is always less than equal to 1. We can write that,  [tex]P(x\leq 1)[/tex].

So the probability of randomly selected students who will be absent no more than one day is calculated as given below.

[tex]P = P (x=0) + P(x=1)\\P = 0.78 + 0.14[/tex]

[tex]P = 0.92[/tex]

Hence we can conclude that the probability of randomly selected students who will be absent no more than one day is 0.92. Option D is correct.

To know more about the probability, follow the link given below.

https://brainly.com/question/795909.

Answer:

m ∠ E = 29°

Step-by-step explanation:

34 + 117 + m = 180

151 + m = 180

-151         -151

m ∠ E = 29°

I hope this helps!

Answer:

D)  [tex]x=\frac{5}{3}[/tex] and [tex]x=-4[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Factor by grouping

[tex]3x^2+7x-20=0\\\\3x^2+12x-5x-20=0\\\\3x(x+4)-5(x+4)=0\\\\(3x-5)(x+4)=0[/tex]

Solve each factor using the Zero Product Property

[tex]3x-5=0\\\\3x=5\\\\x=\frac{5}{3}[/tex]

[tex]x+4=0\\\\x=-4[/tex]

Thus, [tex]x=\frac{5}{3}[/tex] and [tex]x=-4[/tex] are the solutions

Answer:

7.04*4=x

x/3=how much the tickets cost

Step-by-step explanation:

If each of the four friends pays $7.04, the equation would be set up like this: 7.04*4=28.16. This means the total cost for tickets is 28.16. If the total cost for three tickets is 28.16, just divide the total cost by how many tickets were purchased. 28.16/3=9.39. This means one ticket cost 9.39.

[tex]\longrightarrow \sf £ \:9.4 [/tex]

[tex]\leadsto[/tex]Money paid by 1 friend = £ 7.05

[tex]\leadsto[/tex]Money paid by 4 friend = £ 7.05 × 4

[tex] \quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad[/tex]= £ 28.2

This is equal to cost of 3 tickets

[tex]\leadsto[/tex] Cost of 3 tickets = £ 28.2

[tex]\leadsto[/tex] Cost of 1 ticket = £ 28.2 ÷ 3

[tex]\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad[/tex]=£ 9.4

Thus , each ticket cost £ 9.4 .

Answer:

Without seeing or knowing the original coordinates for each point, all I can tell you is to take the original coordinates and add 4 to the x. Then subtract 3 from the y. Plot accordingly

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

y-2=-5(x-2)

y=-3(x-2)

The volume of the triangular prism = [tex]V = (base-area)*height[/tex]

Thus the volume is [tex]\\V = (\frac{1}{2} *3*4) * 7 = 6 * 7 = 42[/tex].

Thus the volume is 42 cubic km.

Hope that helps!

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

plug in x and y in to the equation

5(4)-2(7)

20-14=

6

Answer:

x2+3x−5

Step-by-step explanation:

Set up the synthetic division using the coefficients of the numerator and the root in the denominator. Divide using the rules for synthetic division.

Answer:

1x^2 + 7x + 4/x+2

Step-by-step explanation: x^3+ 5x^2+ x- 10 by x+ 2.

    |  1        5      -10

2   | ----      2        14

     ________________

         1       7        4

X+2 = not a factorable --

1x^2 + 7x + 4/x+2

Answer:

x = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

4(6x - 7) = 44

divide both sides by 4

6x - 7 = 11

add 7 to both sides

6x = 18

divide both sides by 6

x = 3

Answer:

3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

add total NOT male (9) total NOT 0.3 to 0.7 seconds (11) and subtract the number that is both not male and not 0.3 to 0.7 seconds (5)

9+11-5 = 15

over total (20)

15/20 simplifies to 3/4

Answer:

c i hope I was not too late